From chapter nine of Reasoning from the Scriptures with Catholics, by Ron Rhodes, (Eugene Oregon: Harvest House Publishers, 2000), pp. 162-170

Visit his web site at Reasoning From The Scriptures Ministries

The Roman Catholic Teaching: In Acts 2:38 we read, "And Peter said to them, `Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit:" Roman Catholics argue that this verse supports the necessity of baptism for salvation. Indeed, Ludwig Ott, citing this verse, tells us that "baptism has the power both of eradicating sin and of effecting inner sanctification."25

Response: Admittedly, this is not an easy verse to interpret. But a basic principle of Bible interpretation is that difficult passages are to be interpreted in light of the easy, clear verses. We should never build a theology on difficult passages.

As a backdrop, the great majority of passages dealing with salvation in the New Testament affirm that salvation is by faith alone. A good example is John 3:16,17 (NIV): "For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him." Even Peter, who is the one who uttered the words in Acts 2:38, elsewhere acknowledges that a person is saved prior to baptism. For example, in Acts 10:47 we read Peter's words, "Surely no one can refuse the water for these to be baptized who have received the Holy Spirit just as we did, can he?" Salvation came first for these people (as evidenced in their possession of the Holy Spirit), and baptism followed.

How, then, are we to understand Acts 2:38? A single word in the verse gives us the answer. The verse reads, "Peter replied, `Repent and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins. And you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit"' (NIV, emphasis added).

Students of the Greek language have often pointed out that the Greek word for (eis) is a preposition that can indicate causality ("in order to attain") or a result ("because of"). An example of using for in a resultant sense is the sentence, "I'm taking an aspirin for my headache:' Obviously, this means I am taking an aspirin as a result of my headache. I am not taking an aspirin in order to attain a headache.

An example of using for in a causal sense is the sentence, "I’m going to the office for my paycheck." Obviously, this means I am going to the office in order to attain my paycheck.

In Acts 2:38 the word for is used in a resultant sense. The verse might be paraphrased, "Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ because of (or as a result of) the remission of sins." The verse is not saying "Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ in order to attain the remission of sins."

Properly interpreted, then, this verse indicates that water baptism follows the salvation experience, not causes the salvation experience.

• Did you know that Greek scholars say the word for is a preposition that can indicate either causality ("in order to attain") or a result ("because of')?

• An example of using for in a resultant sense is the sentence, "I'm taking an aspirin for [as a result ofj my headache:'

• An example of using for in a causal sense is the sentence, "I'm going to the office for [in order to attain] my paycheck:'

• What would Acts 2:38 be saying if for is being used in a resultant sense? ("Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ as a result of the remission of sins:')

You might want to remind the Roman Catholic that in this same Book of Acts, when the desperate Philippian jailer asked Paul what he must do to obtain salvation and have eternal life, Paul said nothing about baptism. He merely said, "Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you shall be saved" (Acts 16:31). Simple and to the point!

This is consistent with what we see elsewhere in Scripture. Consider the following:

-John 11:25-"Jesus said to her, `I am the resurrection and the life; he who believes in Me shall live even if he dies."'

-John 12:46--"I have come as light into the world, that everyone who believes in Me may not remain in darkness:'

-John 20:31"These have been written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing you may have life in His name:'

(Note: I won't be repeating here the material from the previous chapter regarding the fact that we are justified the moment we place faith in Christ, and that justification is not a process that begins at baptism. You will want to review this earlier material when questions about baptism come up.)

John 3:5-Is Baptism Necessary for Salvation?

    The Roman Catholic Teaching: In John 3:5 we read the words of Jesus: "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God." Roman Catholics interpret this as meaning that baptism is required for salvation. Indeed, baptism is said to confer the grace of justification?26 "The universal necessity of this `rebirth' through Baptism is emphasized by Our Lord: `Unless a man be born again of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God' (John 3:5)."27 Indeed, "Baptism, the door to life and to the kingdom of God, is the first sacrament of the New Law offered by Christ to all men that they might have eternal life (John 3:5)."28

Response: I begin with the observation that there are so many verses in John's Gospel that indicate belief in Christ as the sole condition for salvation that John would have to have been dishonest if in fact both belief in Christ and baptism were necessary for salvation (see John 5:24; 6:35; 7:38; 8:24; 9:35; 10:38; 11:26; 12:44-48; 20:31). However John 3:5 is interpreted, it must be in keeping with all these other verses.

Critical to a proper understanding of John 3:1-5 is verse 6: "That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit:' Flesh can only reproduce itself as flesh, and flesh cannot pass muster with God (see Romans 8:8). The law of reproduction is "after its kind" (see Genesis 1). So, likewise, the Spirit produces spirit.

In Nicodemus' case, we find a Pharisee who would have been trusting in his physical descent from Abraham for entrance into the Messiah's kingdom. The Jews believed that because they were physically related to Abraham, they were in a specially privileged position before God. Christ, however, denied such a possibility. Parents can transmit to their children only the nature that they themselves possess. Since each parent's nature, because of Adam's sin, is sinful, each parent transmits a sinful nature to the child. And what is sinful cannot enter the kingdom of God (verse 5). The only way someone can enter God's kingdom is to experience a spiritual rebirth, and this is precisely what Jesus is emphasizing to Nicodemus.

The problem is, Nicodemus did not initially comprehend Jesus' meaning. Nicodemus wrongly concluded that Jesus was speaking of something related to physical birth, but could not understand how a person could go through physical birth a second time (John 3:4). Jesus picked up on Nicodemus' line of thought and sought to move the argument from physical birth to spiritual birth.

Notice how Jesus went about His explanation to Nicodemus. He first speaks about being "born of water and the Spirit" in John 3:5, and then explains what He means by this in verse 6. It would seem that "born of water" in verse 5 is parallel to "born of the flesh" in verse 6, just as "born of...the Spirit" in verse 5 is parallel to "born of the Spirit" in verse 6. Jesus' message, then, is that just as each person has had a physical birth to live on earth, so he or she roust also have a spiritual birth in order to enter the spiritual kingdom of God. A person must be "born from above:' Seen in this light, this verse has nothing whatsoever to do with water baptism.

I should note that the fact that some of the early church fathers believed this verse referred to baptism is not decisive for us. Indeed, the fathers were finite and fallible human beings. Only the Bible is infallible. Further, the fathers often offered mistaken and conflicting interpretations of the same verse. Hence, there is no consensus among the fathers on many issues. This being the case, the fathers cannot be cited as some infallible indicator of what the correct interpretation must be.

Ask...

• Would you please read aloud from John 3:5? What two kinds of birth does Jesus mention?

• Would you please read aloud from John 3:6? What two kinds of birth does Jesus mention?

• In context, is it not clear that Jesus defines what He means in verse 5 by the more precise statement in verse 6?

• Is it not clear that "born of water" (verse 5) and "born of the flesh" (verse 6) are referring to the same thing-that is, physical birth?

• That being the case, isn't Jesus saying that just as a person has had a physical birth ("born of the flesh"), so also must a person have a spiritual birth if he wants to enter the spiritual kingdom of God?

• If this is correct, the phrase "born of water" cannot be interpreted to mean baptism, can it?

The Roman Catholic Teaching: In Mark 16:16 we read, "He who has believed and has been baptized shall be saved; but he who has disbelieved shall be condemned." Roman Catholics teach that in this verse Jesus is saying that baptism is necessary for salvation. We are told that "through Baptism as through a door men enter the Church."29

Response: Notice the latter part of the verse: "He who has believed and has been baptized shall be saved; but he who has disbelieved shall be condemned" (Mark 15:16, emphasis added). It is unbelief that brings damnation not a lack of being baptized. When someone rejects the Gospel, refusing to believe it, that person is damned.

In regard to the question of whether baptism is necessary for salvation, consider the words of the apostle Paul: "For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel not with words of human wisdom, lest the cross of Christ be emptied of its power" (1 Corinthians 1:17 NIV). Paul here draws a clear distinction between baptism aid the gospel. And since it is the gospel that saves (1 Corinthians 15:1,2), baptism is clearly not necessary to attain salvation.

That is not to say that baptism is unimportant. Baptism should be the first act of obedience to God following a person's conversion to Christ. But even though we should obey God and get baptized, we must not forget flat our faith in Christ is what saves us (Acts 16:31; John 3:10, not baptism. Baptism is basically a public profession of faith. It says to the whole world, "I'm a believer in Christ Wd have identified my life with Him:'

Ask...

• Would you read aloud from Mark 16:16`. According to the last half of the verse, what is the basis of damnation?

• According to 1 Corinthians 15:1,2, does baptism save or the gospel?

• Would you read aloud from 1 Corinthians 1:17? If the gospel saves, and if Paul draws a clear distinction between the gospel and baptism, doesn't that meal that baptism has no part in salvation?

(Next you might read aloud from 1 Corinthians 15:14, where the apostle Paul clearly defines what he means by "the gospel.")

The Roman Catholic Teaching: In Titus 3:5 we read, "He saved us, not on the basis of deeds which we have done in righteousness, but according to His mercy, by the washing of regeneration and renewing by the Holy Spirit." This verse is interpreted as meaning that baptism leads to regeneration. "It is through baptism that this regeneration takes place; hence Paul calls this Sacrament `the bath of regeneration' (Tit. 3:5)."30

Response: The Greek word for baptism (baptidzo) is not used in this verse. Paul did not use this word because he was not referring to baptism. Paul refers to "washing of regeneration" (Greek: loutrou) to describe how believers are cleansed of guilt at the moment of salvation.

The fact that this is a "washing of regeneration" indicates that a spiritual washing is in view, not a literal water-baptism kind of washing. Besides, the very words used in this verse point out beyond any doubt that our salvation is not a result of doing things (like getting baptized) but is based entirely on God's mercy.

Ask...

• If baptism is so necessary for salvation, as Roman Catholicism teaches, why didn't Jesus baptize anyone (John 4:2)?

• If baptism is so necessary for salvation, how did the thief on the cross get saved (Luke 23:43)? (Jesus told him, "Truly I say to you, today you shall be with Me in Paradise.")

• If baptism is so necessary for salvation, why did the apostle Paul say, "Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel" (1 Corinthians 1:17)?

• If baptism is so necessary for salvation, how do you explain the fact that Cornelius was a recipient of the Holy Spirit (thereby indicating his salvation) prior to his baptism (Acts 10:44-48)?

• If baptism is so necessary for salvation, why is it that close to 200 times in the New Testament salvation is said to be solely by faith in Christ, with no mention of baptism? Wouldn't Scripture be deceptive in these 200 verses if baptism were a requirement for salvation?

ENDNOTES:

25.    Ott, Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma, p. 355

26.    Ibid. See also Directory on Ecumenism, issued by the Secretariat for Promoting Christian Unity, Ad Totam Ecclesiam II, electronic media, Harmony Media Inc.

27.    Encyclopedic Dictionary of the Bible, electronic media, Harmony Media Inc.

28.    The Sacraments and Their Celebration, "Baptism," electronic media, Harmony Media Inc.

29.    Directory on Ecumenism, electronic media, Harmony Media Inc.

30.    Encyclopedic Dictionary of the Bible, electronic media, Harmony Media Inc.